Simplification for IBPS PO test 2-Solved questions with detailed explanations for SSC, IBPS PO, SBI PO, RRB, RBI, CSE, CGL, CHSL, CDA, CSE, UPSC

6)

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions

$1802 \div 34 \div 5 = \sqrt{?}$

[UK GBO, 2007]

A)
10.6
B)
114.49
C)
11.14
D)
110.4
E)
None of these

Answer: Option E

Explanation

In this question

We apply BODMAS rule

$\begin{array}{l} So, it can also be written as \\ = 1802 \times \frac{1}{34} \times \frac{1}{5} \end{array} \begin{array}{l} = \frac{1802}{170} = 10.6 \end{array} \begin{array}{l} = \sqrt{?} \end{array} \begin{array}{l} \Rightarrow {? = (10.6)}^{2} \end{array} =112.36$

Discussion

7)

2817×? = 626

[UK GBO, 2007]

A)
$\frac{1}{2}$
B)
$\frac{3}{4}$
C)
$\frac{2}{9}$
D)
$\frac{3}{5}$
E)
None of these

Answer: Option C

Explanation

In this Question

We follow the rule BODMAS

$\begin{array}{l} So, 2817 \times ? = 626 \\ \Rightarrow ? = \frac{626}{2817} = \frac{2}{9} \end{array}$

Hence, Option C is correct.

Discussion

8)

4172+593-?=3069

[UK GBO, 2007]

A)
1666
B)
1669
C)
1996
D)
1969
E)
None of these

Discussion

9)

$(8792 - 4136) \div ? = 145.5$

[Bank of Maharashtra (PO), 2009]

A)
38
B)
32
C)
42
D)
36
E)
None of these

Answer: Option B

Explanation

In this question

We apply BODMAS rule,

$\begin{array}{l} So, (8792 - 4136) + ? = 145.5 \\ \begin{array}{l} \Rightarrow (4656) \div ? = 145.5 \end{array} \end{array} \Rightarrow ? = \frac{4656}{145 .5} = 32$

Hence, Option B is correct.

Discussion

10)

$85.6 \div 12 \times ?^{2} = 69.5 \times 8$

[RBI, 2015]

A)
5
B)
9
C)
2
D)
4
E)
6

Answer: Option B

Explanation

In this question

$\begin{array}{l} 85.6 \div 12 \times ?^{2} = 69.5 \times 8 \end{array} ?^{2} = \frac{69.5 \times 8 \times 12}{85.6} \begin{array}{l} ?^{2} = 77.94 \end{array} ? = 8.82 = 9$

Hence, Option B is correct.

Discussion

Simplification-Test 2 (Based on VBODMAS/Decimals)

Answer: Option E

Answer: Option C

Answer: Option E

Answer: Option B

Answer: Option B